ITPEC FE Subject A October 2024 Questions and Answers

Question 1

P, Q, and R are propositions. It is known that the truth value of proposition P is true, and the values of both the propositions “(not P) or Q” and “(not Q) or R” are true. Which of the following is a combination of the truth values of Q and R? Here, X or Y represents the logical sum of X and Y, and not X represents the negation of X.

QR

a)FalseFalseb)FalseTruec)TrueFalsed)TrueTrue

Question 2

What is the value of the postfix expression below? Here, A, B, C, and D are operands whose values are 4, 3, 5, and 6, respectively. Symbols “+”, “−”, “×”, and “÷” are arithmetic operators for addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division, respectively.

A B 2 × + D B ÷ C × −

a)−3b)0c)3d)40/3

Question 3

Which of the following is the computational complexity of the Heapsort algorithm? Here, n is the number of elements to be sorted, and all comparisons, swaps, and other needed operations can proceed in constant time.

a)O (log n)b)O (n)c)O (n²)d)O (n log n)

Question 4

The presence of an edge between nodes is represented by an adjacent matrix. When the adjacent matrix of an undirected graph is as below, which of the following is its graph representation? Here, the nodes correspond with the rows and columns of the adjacent matrix. If there is an edge between nodes, this is indicated with 1, and if there is no edge, this is indicated with 0.

a)b)c)d)

Question 5

What is the value of the arithmetic expression resulting from an in-order traversal of the binary tree below?

a)11b)20c)27d)45

Question 6

The function f(n) is recursively defined in terms of the natural number n as below. Which of the following is the value of f(5)?

f(n): if n≦1 then return 1 else return n + f(n−1)

a)6b)9c)15d)25

Question 7

Which of the following is the appropriate description of the “selection sort” algorithm?

a)An intermediate reference value is determined, and then the elements are divided into two groups of “larger” values and “smaller” values. This operation is recursively repeated.b)Each set of elements extracted at regular intervals is sorted, and then the interval is further decreased. The operation is repeatedly performed until the interval becomes 1.c)The element with the largest value is determined and swapped for the last element, and then the largest value of the unsorted elements is determined and swapped for the second-to-the-last element. This operation is repeated in the same way.d)Two adjacent elements are repeatedly compared and swapped if the first element is larger than the second. This operation is repeated until all elements are arranged in an orderly fashion.

Question 8

What is the approximate performance of a CPU in MIPS, when the instruction mix of the CPU is shown in the table below? Here, the CPU does not use a pipeline architecture.

Instruction type	Instruction execution time in µs	Appearance ratio
Register to register operation	0.3	30%
Register to memory operation	0.6	50%
Conditional branch operation	0.1	20%

a)0.03b)0.41c)2.44d)35.00

Question 9

When the CPU needs data, it first accesses the cache memory. When the data is not available in the cache memory, the CPU accesses the main memory. If the miss ratio is 0.2 and the access times for cache memory and main memory are as shown below, what is the approximate average memory access time in ns for the CPU? Here, there are only cache memory and main memory for the CPU, the access time for main memory includes the time to confirm whether the data is available in cache memory, and the overhead time for the cache management can be ignored.

Access destination	Access time (ns)
Cache Memory	75
Main Memory	1500

a)315b)360c)1,215d)1,260

Question 10

Which of the following is the appropriate purpose of defragmentation of hard disks?

a)To access disk files faster and more efficientlyb)To clean up temporary and junk filesc)To delete IBG (interblock gap) and increase capacityd)To protect disk drives from physical failures

Questions 11–20

Question 11

Which of the following is a fail-safe concept for improving the security and reliability of the information system?

a)Even when the user performs an incorrect operation, a problem does not occur in the system.b)Even when there is a partial system fault, the required functions of the overall system are maintained.c)When a device configuring the system fails, damage can be minimized by enabling the system to stop safely.d)When a system failure occurs, processing is continued by switching to a standby system.

Question 12

Which of the following is the approximate availability of the system comprising five devices, namely, A, B, C, D, and E as shown in the figure below? The numeric value in parentheses represents the availability of each device. The system is operational if either device connected in parallel is available.

a)0.003b)0.031c)0.282d)0.795

Question 13

There are minor and major page faults in an Operating System (OS). Which of the following is an appropriate action of the OS when a major page fault occurs?

a)Asking the user to input the instruction corresponding to the pageb)Looking for a page in CPU cachec)Looking for a page in virtual memory on the hard diskd)Looking for the missed block corresponding to the page on the physical memory

Question 14

A real-time OS that performs preemptive priority scheduling for tasks A and B with A having a higher priority than B. Which of the following is the action that the OS takes?

a)When A is launched during the execution of B, B is put into a ready state and A is executed.b)When A is launched during the execution of B, B is put into a waiting state and A is executed.c)When B is launched during the execution of A, A is put into a ready state and B is executed.d)When B is launched during the execution of A, A is put into a waiting state and B is executed.

Question 15

An OS chooses a process for CPU execution based on a scheduling algorithm. Consider four processes, P1, P2, P3, and P4, and their corresponding arrival times along with their burst times shown in the table below. Which of the following is the correct combination of waiting times for the processes to be executed in the First-Come-First-Serve (FCFS) scheduling algorithm? Here, arrival time is when a process enters the ready queue, burst time is the time required for CPU execution, and waiting time is the time a process spends in the ready queue before CPU execution begins.

Unit: millisecond

Process	Arrival time	Burst Time
P1	0	6
P2	2	4
P3	4	9
P4	5	7

P1P2P3P4

a)0245b)04614c)6497d)661312

Question 16

A graphical symbol for the 2-to-1 MUX (multiplexer) and its truth table are shown in the figure below. The MUX has two data inputs (I₀, I₁), one select-line (S) and one output (Z). If the select line is S=0, then the output Z is switched to input I₀, whereas if a select line is S=1, then the output Z is switched to input I₁.

Which of the following is a logic gate that is equivalent to the circuit implemented with the 2-to-1 MUX below?

a)b)c)d)

Question 17

Audio signals are recorded using 8-bit samples at a sampling rate of 11,000 times per second. When a flash memory of 512 × 10⁶ bytes is used, what is the maximum recording time of such data in minutes?

a)77b)96c)775d)969

Question 18

Which of the following is a database design that consists of multiple tables with rows and columns that are linked together through matching data stored in each table?

a)Hierarchical databaseb)Network databasec)Object-oriented databased)Relational database

Question 19

Which of the following is an appropriate ER diagram after considering the conditions below?

-An employee is associated with 1 program and a program is associated with at least one employee-A program belongs to 1 college and a college has one or many programs

a)b)c)d)

Question 20

An employee works for a department, which can be located in multiple regions. Three tables EMP, DEPT, and DEPT_LOCS are created as shown below for recording the employee, department, and department location data, respectively.

EMP

EID	Ename	DNO	Salary
11	John Bate	1	20000
12	Mohammed Karim	2	40000
13	Sadat Hossain	1	50000
14	Katherine Li	3	20000
15	Shuvashish Bose	3	40000

DEPT

DNO	Dname	ManagerID
1	Admin	11
2	Accounts	13
3	Research	15

DEPT_LOCS

DNO	Region
1	L1
1	L3
2	L2
3	L3
3	L2

What is the output of the SQL shown below?

SELECT EName, Salary

FROM EMP

WHERE DNO IN (( SELECT DNO

FROM DEPT)

MINUS

(SELECT DNO

FROM DEPT_LOCS

WHERE Region=’L2’)

))

a)b)c)d)

Questions 21–30

Question 21

If a transaction processing program ends abnormally while updating the database, the database is recovered by a rollback process. In these circumstances, which of the following is the information that is used?

a)Post-update information of log filesb)Pre-update information of log filesc)The latest backup file informationd)The latest snapshot information

Question 22

Which of the following is a property on a database that guarantees a result where a transaction either fully completes update processing or is revoked as if no processing took place at all?

a)Atomicityb)Consistencyc)Durabilityd)Isolation

Question 23

Which of the following is an appropriate description of a device that connects LANs?

a)A bridge relays frames based on IP addresses.b)A gateway converts the protocols of only the first through third levels in the OSI basic reference model.c)A repeater extends the transmission distance by amplifying signals between segments of the same type.d)A router relays frames based on MAC addresses.

Question 24

What is the broadcast address of the network 192.168.128.0/22?

a)192.168.128.127b)192.168.128.255c)192.168.131.255d)192.168.255.255

Question 25

Which of the following is a protocol to gather information on network components to manage and troubleshoot the network?

a)NTPb)SMTPc)SNMPd)TELNET

Question 26

Which of the following is the way of using a phone to supply an Internet connection to other devices, such as a tablet or laptop computer over either Wi-Fi or Bluetooth?

a)Dedicated mobile hotspotsb)PPPoEc)Tetheringd)UPnP

Question 27

Which of the following is an example of a phishing email?

a)An email containing pop-up ads for products unrelated to the emailb)An email intercepted, altered, and successfully sentc)An email with a link that automatically installs an application collecting and sending data to the remote serverd)An email with a link that redirects to a fake banking site

Question 28

Which of the following bitwise logical operation can be applied in stream cipher between a plain-text and a keystream to produce a cipher-text, and between a ciphertext and the keystream to recover the plaintext?

a)ANDb)NANDc)ORd)XOR

Question 29

Which of the following description is an appropriate use of asymmetric encryption to ensure the confidentiality of a message that a sender is going to send to a receiver?

a)The message is encrypted using a pre-shared secret key.b)The message is encrypted using a private key of the sender.c)The message is encrypted using a public key of the receiver.d)The message is encrypted using a public key of the sender.

Question 30

Which type of attack involves intercepting communication between sender and receiver?

a)Brute Force Attackb)Man-in-the-Middle Attackc)Phishing Attackd)Ransomware Attack

Questions 31–40

Question 31

Which of the following refers to a technique that is used in a credential stuffing attack?

a)Focusing on the case where there are users that set a word from the dictionary as their password, selecting one (1) user ID as the target of the attack, and attempting to log in using words in the dictionary and their combinations as the passwordb)Focusing on the case where there are users that use the same user ID and password on multiple websites, and attempting to log in using a list of user IDs and passwords fraudulently acquired from other websitesc)Selecting one (1) frequently used password, and attempting to log in by using user IDs of all possible combinations of charactersd)Selecting one (1) user ID as the target of the attack on a website that has a low maximum number of characters for passwords, and attempting to log in by using the user ID and passwords of all possible combinations of characters

Question 32

Which of the following is the name of an attack where manipulation is made to display a malicious website near the top of the results on a search website?

a)Cross-site scriptingb)DNS cache poisoningc)SEO poisoningd)Social engineering

Question 33

Which of the following is a function of security information and event management (SIEM)?

a)The centralized control of a range of communication devices in a network, and the changing of network configuration and security settingsb)The execution of a file in an isolated virtual environment, and the monitoring of communication to a C&C server and other behaviorc)The general analysis of logs that are collected from a range of devices, and the support of analysis and action by an administratord)The inspection of header information in packets, the identification of application programs that receive communication, and the control of communication

Question 34

Which of the following is the UML behavioral diagram showing the behavior of a single object-in response to triggers?

a)Activity diagramb)Sequence diagramc)State machine diagramd)Use case diagram

Question 35

In object-oriented programming, which of the following is abstraction?

a)Concealing implementation details and exposing only a simplified interface for interacting with objectsb)Creating a subclass instance inheriting attributes and behaviors from its superclassc)Defining multiple methods with the same name but different parametersd)Redefining in the child class a method that is already provided by the superclass with the same name and parameters but a different implementation

Question 36

Which of the following is an appropriate description of “delegation” in object orientation?

a)A mechanism that creates one (1) new object using multiple objects as its partsb)A mechanism where a lower-level class inherits the attribute or operation of a higher-level classc)A mechanism where an application of an operation to a certain object automatically causes the application of that operation to related objectsd)A mechanism where an operation to a certain object is internally requested to be performed by another object

Question 37

In unit testing, which of the following activities is part of white box testing?

a)Boundary value analysisb)Condition testingc)Equivalence partitioningd)Orthogonal array testing

Question 38

Which of the following is the appropriate explanation of a stub or a driver used in a test?

a)A driver is a module that is called from the module to be testedb)A driver passes arguments and calls the module to be testedc)A stub is a module used to call the module to be testedd)A stub is used to display or print the values returned from the module to be tested

Question 39

Scrum is an agile development method. In Scrum, which of the following is an event where each member of the development team talks in turn about topics such as “things I did yesterday,” “things I will do today,” and “obstacles,” and all members share the status of a project?

a)Daily Scrumb)Retrospectivec)Sprint planningd)Sprint review

Question 40

Among eXtreme Programming (XP) practices, which of the following is adopted to improve program quality in program development through smooth communication between programmers by exchanging their roles and reviewing each other’s work?

a)Coding standardb)Pair programmingc)Planning gamed)Test-driven development

Questions 41–50

Question 41

Which of the following is an appropriate purpose for using a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) in a software development project?

a)To clarify the sequence relation of activities and understand the critical path that should be intensively managedb)To hierarchically detail activities and segment them into a manageable scalec)To optimize the total cost when there is a trade-off between the duration and the cost of developmentd)To represent the schedule of an activity with a horizontal bar, and clarify the start time and end time of the activity as well as the progress at the present point in time

Question 42

Which of the following is an appropriate explanation concerning the scope creep in project scope management?

a)A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverablesb)Any change to the project scope, which almost consistently requires an adjustment to the project cost or schedulec)The sum of the products, services, and results to be provided as a projectd)The uncontrolled expansion of product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources

Question 43

Which of the following is a requirement for service level management?

a)A capacity plan is created, implemented, and maintained while human, technical, informational, and financial resources are considered.b)A service catalog and SLA are created for the service to be provided, and they are agreed upon with the customer.c)Costs are monitored and reported against the budget; the financial forecasts are reviewed, and costs are managed.d)Risks to service continuity and availability of services are assessed and documented.

Question 44

A device that operates 24 hours a day, 360 days a year has an MTBF value of 1,440 hours. Which of the following is the average number of failures for this device for 360 days? Here, the result is rounded to the closest whole number, and the MTTR of the device is ignored.

a)3b)6c)9d)12

Question 45

Which of the following is the most appropriate description of a system auditor?

a)The entire audit interview must be conducted by one (1) system auditor, because discrepancies may occur in the record if multiple auditors are involved.b)The system auditor must instruct the department being audited to implement improvement measures for deficiencies identified during the audit interview.c)The system auditor must make an effort to obtain documents and records that support the information obtained from the department being audited during the audit interview.d)The system auditor must select audit interviewees from administrators who have been an auditor within the department being audited.

Question 46

Which of the following is an explanation of an application architecture that constitutes enterprise architecture?

a)It systematically describes the business processes or the information flows necessary for the business strategy.b)It systematically describes the contents of the data necessary for business operations, the relations or structures between the data, etc.c)It systematically describes the functions or system configurations that support business processes.d)It systematically describes the technical components necessary for the developments and operations of the information systems.

Question 47

Which of the following is a description of the SOA?

a)A concept of constructing a system by considering the software functions as components called services and combining themb)A concept of improving sales efficiency and quality by using IT for sales activities to increase sales and profits as well as to improve customer satisfactionc)A concept of re-designing the business processes to innovatively improve the cost, quality, service, and speedd)Outsourcing the in-house operations that are not part of the core businesses to concentrate the management resources on the core businesses

Question 48

Which of the following is the work that is performed when non-functional requirements are defined?

a)Clarifying the flow of information (i.e., data) between the functions constituting business operationsb)Clarifying the interface for exchanging information with other systemsc)Creating the technical requirements for the development criteria and standards according to the programming language used in system developmentd)Defining the scope to be implemented as system functions

Question 49

Which of the following is an explanation of diversity management?

a)Both labor and management to reach an agreement on working conditions and work together with the aim of increasing profitsb)For employees to harmonize between work and private life, approach their work with a sense of purpose, and increase the vitality of the organizationc)For employees to take an autonomous approach to work with the aim of achieving the objectives that they set for themselves and be evaluated according to the degree of achievementd)To increase the vitality of the organization by respecting the diversity among its employees in terms of aspects such as gender, age, and nationality

Question 50

In innovation theory, consumers are classified into five (5) groups innovators, early adopters, early majority, late majority, and laggards according to the timing of their purchase of a new product. Which of the following is the appropriate explanation of the early adopters?

a)A group that accepts a new product, service, or other such offering at an early phase, has a large impact on consumers, is sensitive to trends, and makes decisions after collecting information themselvesb)A group that accepts a new product, service, or other such offering at the soonest phase without worrying about risksc)A group that is skeptical about the adoption of a new product or new technology and only adopts it after seeing it being adopted by most people around themd)A group that is the most conservative, has limited interest in movements in society and tends to adopt new trends only after they become common or, in some cases, remains firm in refusing their adoption

Questions 51–60

Question 51

Which of the following is a definition of Customer Relationship Management (CRM)?

a)A framework used to support and integrate processes, people, and information across an organization to provide a unified gateway for information and a knowledge base for employees, partners, and customersb)A technology for managing all of a company’s relationships and interactions with customers and potential customers in order to improve business relationshipsc)A type of software that organizations use to manage day-to-day business activities such as accounting, procurement, project management, risk management and compliance, and supply chain operationsd)The broad range of activities required to plan, control, and execute a product's flow, from acquiring raw materials and production through distribution to the final customer, in the most streamlined and cost-effective way possible

Question 52

Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of concurrent engineering?

a)A product development technique that sequentially executes processes, such as design, manufacturing, and sales activitiesb)A technique that analyzes a target system and clarifies its specificationsc)A technique that executes processes, such as design and production planning, in parallel with product developmentd)A technique that grasps the optimal combination of functions and costs and improves value through systematic procedures

Question 53

Which of the following is one of the main characteristics of a blockchain?

a)A centralized ledger on a serverb)A client-server networkc)A distributed ledger on a peer-to-peer networkd)A type of cryptocurrency

Question 54

Which of the following is the situation where an improvement can be expected by installing a Material Requirements Planning (MRP) system?

a)Drawing information is managed on both electronic files and hard copies, so the history of design changes cannot be accurately traced.b)High-mix, low-volume production is adopted, so the cost of installing production equipment is increasing.c)Information about materials and quantities necessary for production is complicated, so a miscalculation of order quantity or an interruption of production often occurs.d)There are too many design changes, so production efficiency does not improve.

Question 55

Which of the following is the objects that can benefit from the cell production method?

a)Products that require a wide variety and flexible productionb)Products that require division of labor by standardization, simplification, and specializationc)Products that require mass production to increase productivityd)Products whose specifications do not change for a long period

Question 56

Which of the following is a technique that can be used to discover useful information and relationships from large amounts of customer and market data retained by a company?

a)Data dictionaryb)Data flow diagramc)Data miningd)Data warehouse

Question 57

The relationship between the value “x” of a certain factor in the manufacture of a product and the value “y” of a quality characteristic of the product is plotted in the figure below. Which of the following is an appropriate interpretation of this figure?

a)In order to estimate y from x, a quadratic regression coefficient needs to be calculated.b)The correlation coefficient between x and y is negative.c)The correlation coefficient between x and y is positive.d)The regression expression for estimating y from x is the same as that for estimating x from y.

Question 58

Two (2) types of raw materials A and B are required to manufacture products X and Y. The quantity of each raw material required per unit and the procurable quantity are listed in the table below. When the profit per unit is $1 for product X and $1.5 for product Y, which of the following is the maximum profit in dollar?

Rawmaterial	Required quantityper unit of product X	Required quantityper unit of product Y	Procurablequantity
A	2	1	100
B	1	2	80

a)50b)60c)70d)80

Question 59

When the selling price of a product is $50 and the fixed costs for production and sales are $100,000, which of the following is the number of units to be sold to achieve the desired profit of $50,000? Here, the variable cost ratio is 60%.

a)5,000b)7,500c)10,000d)12,500

Question 60

Which of the following is an explanation of a volume license agreement?

a)A contract that establishes standard license conditions and deems that a license agreement is automatically established between the rightsholder and the purchaser when a certain amount of package is unwrapped within the scope of the standard license conditionsb)A contract that predefines the number of installations and permits the use of software for companies or other such purchasers of large amounts of softwarec)A contract that restricts the location of use and permits the use of an unlimited number of units or persons within a specific facilityd)A contract where use is permitted by selecting to agree to the terms of the contract on the screen that is displayed when software is downloaded from the Internet

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